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( AEnglischA )

In section 1 of GMS III, Kant claims that “a free will and a will under

moral laws are the same” (447.6–10). 1 h is claim expresses Kant’s concept

of autonomy; after all, the concept of freedom is the “key” (446.6) to

this concept. So if we understand freedom in its relation to morality, we

understand autonomy. But how are we to understand this relation? On

the standard reading, Kant’s claim is that a free will is under the moral

law as a Categorical Imperative (CI); hence, once it is shown that we are

free it is shown that we are obliged by the CI. 2 h is interpretation, I will

argue, is incorrect.

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